Respuesta :

Answer:

No. See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets put x = 1:-

f(1) = 1^2  + 2 = 3.

Now let x = -1:

f(-1) = (-1)^2 + 2 = 3.

So f(x) is not a one-to-one function.

It is a many to one function.

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